Are they truly inferior? Many think so, but there are no randomized trials.
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The pharmacology aside, sometimes generics are inferior. My wife uses an eyedrop for uveitis. The generic is either lower in viscosity or poorly packaged because, try as she may, she cannot dispense just one drop — a feat she can do easily with the brand.
My question is just how accurate is the concentration of the a active ingredient in generic as compared to the brand? Isn’t there a range that generics can fall in, and still be marketed as “the same as” the brand. I am quite certain the vehicle (delivery) does not have to be the same as the brand, which leads to tolerability issues, effectiveness, etc.
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